Use this information to answer questions 1 – 4

Use this information to answer questions 1 – 4, assume the entire economy consists of only three markets.

 

Market 1 Market 2 Market 3

Price Qd Price Qd Price Qd

$9 10 $9 5 $9 50

$8 20 $8 10 $8 60

$7 30 $7 20 $7 70

$6 40 $6 30 $6 80

$5 50 $5 40 $5 90

 

 

Market 1 Market 2 Market 3

Price Qs Price Qs Price Qs

$9 50 $9 40 $9 90

$8 40 $8 30 $8 80

$7 30 $7 20 $7 70

$6 20 $6 10 $6 60

$5 10 $5 5 $5 50

 

1. Which of the following is the correct aggregate demand curve:

 

 

 

Question 1 options:

 

Price QAD

$27 65

$24 90

$21 120

$18 150

$15 180

 

Price QAD

$9 65

$8 90

$7 120

$6 150

$5 180

 

Price QAD

$27 180

$24 150

$21 120

$18 90

$15 65

 

Price QAD

$9 180

$8 150

$7 120

$6 90

$5 65

Save

Question 2 (1 point) Question 2 Unsaved

Which of the following is the correct aggregate supply curve:

Question 2 options:

 

Price QAD

$27 65

$24 90

$21 120

$18 150

$15 180

 

html>

Price QAD

$9 65

$8 90

$7 120

$6 150

$5 180

 

Price QAD

$27 180

$24 150

$21 120

$18 90

$15 65

 

Price QAD

$9 180

$8 150

$7 120

$6 90

$5 65

Save

Question 3 (1 point) Question 3 Unsaved

What is the equilibrium price level?

Question 3 options:

 

$27

 

$21

 

$9

 

$7

Save

Question 4 (1 point) Question 4 Unsaved

What is the equilibrium output level?

Question 4 options:

 

180

 

120

 

65

 

150

 

90

Save

Question 5 (1 point) Question 5 Unsaved

Reagan’s plan for economic growth was called Supply-Side Economics. Which of the following was included in Reagan’s plan?

Question 5 options:

 

increase the use of tariffs

 

increase exports

 

increase private sector investment

 

increase governmental spending

Save

Question 6 (1 point) Question 6 Unsaved

Lyndon Baines Johnson (LBJ) started the current governmental debt by:

Question 6 options:

 

borrowing to finance the Korean War

 

borrowing to finance the Vietnam War

 

borrowing to finance World War II

 

increasing taxes

Save

Question 7 (1 point) Question 7 Unsaved

The sum of accumulated annual federal budget deficits minus budget surpluses refers to

Question 7 options:

 

the national debt.

 

the cyclically unbalanced budget.

 

the trade deficit.

 

the federal government net worth.

Save

Question 8 (1 point) Question 8 Unsaved

Suppose you felt that the government should conduct monetary policy to correct for an inflationary period, but you also felt that the interest rate should not be changed. You would argue that the government should:

Question 8 options:

 

sell bonds

 

buy bonds

 

increase its exhaustive spending

 

decrease its non-exhaustive spending

Save

Question 9 (1 point) Question 9 Unsaved

Suppose you felt that the government should conduct fiscal policy to correct for recessionary period, but you also felt that the tax rate should not be changed. You would argue that the government should:

Question 9 options:

 

decrease the money supply

 

increase the money supply

 

increase its exhaustive spending

 

decrease its non-exhaustive spending

 

increase the interest rate

Save

Question 10 (1 point) Question 10 Unsaved

The MPS = .2, which of the following changes in AD eliminates a $50 million recessionary gap:

Question 10 options:

 

A $10 million increase in Import spending.

 

A $10 million decrease in Import spending.

 

A $50 million increase in Government spending.

 

A $50 million decrease in Government spending.

Save

Question 11 (1 point) Question 11 Unsaved

The MPC = .9, which of the following changes in AD eliminates a $100 million recessionary gap:

Question 11 options:

 

A $10 million increase in Investment spending.

 

A $5 million decrease in Investment spending.

 

A $100 million increase in Export spending

 

A $5 million decrease in Export spending.

Save

Question 12 (1 point) Question 12 Unsaved

Using fiscal policy, if the MPC = .8, which of the following changes in AD alleviates an inflationary gap of $100 billion.

Question 12 options:

 

A $100 billion increase in the Money Supply.

 

A $20 billion increase in the Money Supply.

 

A $100 billion increase in Government spending.

 

A $20 billion decrease in Import spending.

 

A $20 billion decrease in Governmental spending.

Save

Question 13 (1 point) Question 13 Unsaved

In general, if the macroeconomy experiences inflation the federal government should:

Question 13 options:

 

Increase the aggregate demand.

 

Decrease the aggregate demand.

 

Create a balanced budget.

 

Eliminate the national debt.

Save

Question 14 (1 point) Question 14 Unsaved

The tax deferred attribute of your IRA represents:

Question 14 options:

 

you retirement account being non-taxable, until withdrawal

 

a reduction in your taxable income

 

an increase in your taxable income

 

IRAs being completely non-taxable

Save

Question 15 (1 point) Question 15 Unsaved

OPEC’s cartel created the problem of Stagflation. What is Stagflation?

Question 15 options:

 

simultaneous increases in debts and inflation

 

simultaneous increases in debts and unemployment

 

simultaneous increases in unemployment and inflation

 

simultaneous increases in debts and taxes

Save

Question 16 (1 point) Question 16 Unsaved

When the government focuses their spending increases primarily on one segment of the economy, which the following is likely to occur?

Question 16 options:

 

A Crowding Effect

 

An inflationary expectation

 

A budget deficit

 

A budget surplus

Save

Question 17 (1 point) Question 17 Unsaved

The pre-tax contribution on your IRA represents:

Question 17 options:

 

you retirement account being non-taxable, until withdrawal

 

a reduction in your taxable income

 

an increase in your taxable income

 

pre-tax contributions do not effect IRAs.

Save

Question 18 (1 point) Question 18 Unsaved

Inflation that began in the 1960’s was caused by:

Question 18 options:

 

increased governmental spending that increased interest rates to the private sector.

 

the economy being at full employment

 

government spending increases without raising taxes

 

savings and investment being the only leakage and injection that equaled in this time frame.

 

increased oil prices caused by OPEC

Save

Question 19 (1 point) Question 19 Unsaved

Who was the first President to promote zero deficit growth during their administration?

Question 19 options:

 

George W Bush (43rd)

 

Jimmy Carter

 

Ronald Reagan

 

George Bush (41st)

 

Bill Clinton

Save

Question 20 (1 point) Question 20 Unsaved

Which of the following Presidents signed the Civil Rights Act?

Question 20 options:

 

John Kennedy

 

Lyndon Baines Johnson

 

Martin Luther King

 

Richard Nixon

 

Jimmy Carter

Save

Question 21 (1 point) Question 21 Unsaved

In the history of the U.S. economy which of the following schools have had the most impact on the government during the given time period

Question 21 options:

 

the Keynesian school before World War 2

 

the Classical school after World War 2

 

the Supply Siders in the early 1980’s

 

the Keynesian school before 1884

Save

Question 22 (1 point) Question 22 Unsaved

Governmental debts are bad for an economy because:

Question 22 options:

 

interest payments on the debt tie up money that could be used elsewhere

 

debts render fiscal tools more effective than monetary tools

 

tax cuts are politically difficult to sell to the people of the United States

 

all of the above

Save

Question 23 (1 point) Question 23 Unsaved

Which of the following is an example of “trickle-down economics”?

Question 23 options:

 

an income-tax cut that effects everyone.

 

large tax cuts causing large budget deficits.

 

a capital gains tax cut

 

Tax cuts tend to help higher income individuals more than lower income ones.

Save

Question 24 (1 point) Question 24 Unsaved

Inflation that began in the 1970’s was caused by:

Question 24 options:

 

increased governmental spending that increased interest rates to the private sector.

 

the economy being at full employment

 

government spending increases without raising taxes

 

savings and investment being the only leakage and injection that equaled in this time frame.

 

increased oil prices caused by OPEC

Save

Question 25 (1 point) Question 25 Unsaved

Jimmy Carter’s plan to stimulate the economy included:

Question 25 options:

 

An increase in the money supply

 

A decrease in the money supply

 

An increase in the interest rates

 

A decrease in the interest rates

Save

Question 26 (1 point) Question 26 Unsaved

 

 

Use this budget (assuming the government pays no interest and no debt existed before year 1) to answer questions 26-33

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Revenues Expenditures

Year 1 $100 billion $550 billion

Year 1 $100 billion $450 billion

Year 1 $100 billion $400 billion

Year 1 $100 billion $450 billion

Year 1 $100 billion $450 billion

Year 6 $750 billion $550 billion

 

26. At the completion of year 1, the government operated with a:

 

 

 

Question 26 options:

 

budgetary surplus of $450 billion

 

budgetary deficit of $550 billion

 

a national debt of $550 billion

 

a national debt of $450 billion

 

two of the above are correct

Save

Question 27 (1 point) Question 27 Unsaved

At the completion of year 2, the government operated with a:

Question 27 options:

 

budgetary surplus of $350 billion.

 

budgetary deficit of $350 billion.

 

a national debt of $800 billion.

 

a national debt of $1 trillion.

 

two of the above are correct

Save

Question 28 (1 point) Question 28 Unsaved

When comparing the completed year 1 budget to the completed year 2 budget, which is true:

Question 28 options:

 

the government’s debt increased by $150 billion

 

the government’s deficit increased by $100 billion

 

the government experienced deficit reduction

 

the national debt did not grow

 

two of the above are correct

Save

Question 29 (1 point) Question 29 Unsaved

At the completion of year 3, which of the following would be a true statement:

Question 29 options:

 

the government’s debt increased by $250 billion

 

the government’s deficit decreased by $50 billion

 

the government experienced zero deficit growth

 

the national debt did not grow

 

two of the above are correct

Save

Question 30 (1 point) Question 30 Unsaved

At the completion of year 4, which of the following would be a true statement:

Question 30 options:

 

the government’s deficit increased by $150 billion

 

the government’s deficit decreased by $150 billion

 

the government’s debt increased by $350 billion

 

the national debt did not grow

 

two of the above are correct

Save

Question 31 (1 point) Question 31 Unsaved

At the completion of year 5, which of the following would be a true statement:

Question 31 options:

 

the government’s debt increased by $550 billion

 

the government’s deficit decreased by $50 billion

 

the government experienced zero deficit growth

 

the national debt did not grow

 

two of the above are correct

Save

Question 32 (1 point) Question 32 Unsaved

Identify – after year 6 if the government redirects the budget surplus into “other” programs:

Question 32 options:

 

zero debt growth spending

 

zero deficit growth spending

 

operating a balanced budget

 

none of the above

Save

Question 33 (1 point) Question 33 Unsaved

After year 6 when using the true accounting approach, which of the following would be correct?

Question 33 options:

 

the national debt is at $1.2 trillion

 

the national debt is at $250 billion

 

the national debt is at $1.6 trillion

 

the national debt is at $350 billion

E18-21 & e18-24 | Accounting homework help

E18-21

Calculating Activity-based Costing Overhead Rates

Assume that manufacturing overhead for Glassman Company in the previous exercise consisted of the following activities and costs:

Setup (1,000 setup hours)                                            $144,000

Production scheduling (400 batches)                       60,000

Production engineering (60 change orders)         120,000

Supervision (2,000 direct labor hours)                     56,000

Machine maintenance (12,000 machine hours)  84,000

Total activity costs                                                           $464,000

 

The following additional data were provided for Job 845:

Direct materials costs                                                     $7,000

Direct labor cost (5 Milling direct labor hours;

35 Finishing direct labor hours)                                  $1000

Setup hours                                                                       5 hours

Production scheduling                                                   1 batch

Machine hours used (25 Milling machine hours;

5 Finishing machine hours                                            30 hours

Production engineering                                                                3 change orders

 

a.       Calculate the cost per unit of activity driver for each activity cost category.

b.      Calculate the cost of Job 845 using ABC to assign the overhead costs.

c.       Calculate the cost of Job 845 using the plantwide overhead rate based on machine hours calculated in the previous exercise.

d.      Calculate the cost of Job 845 using the machine hour departmental overhead rate for the Milling Department and a direct labor hour overhead rate for the Finishing Department.

 

E18-24

Traditional Product Costing versus Activity Based Costing

Assume that Panasonic Company has determined its estimated total manufacturing overhead cost for one of its plants to be $204,000 consisting of the following activity cost pools for the month.

Activity Center                                 Activity Costs                    Cost Driver                         Activity Level

Assembly setup                                                $45,000                 Setup hours                                       1,500

Material Handling                            15,000                                  Number of moves                              300

Assembly                                            120,000                 Assembly hours                                             12,000

Maintenance                                       24,000                                 Maintenance hours        1,200

Total                                                   $204,000

Total direct labor hours used during the month were 8,000. Panasonic produced many different electronic products, including the following two products produced during the current month:

                                                                                                                Model x301                        Modelz205

                Units produced                                                                   1,000                                   1,000

                Direct material cost                                                     $15,000                                 $15,000

                Direct Labor Cost                                                          $12,500                             $12,500

                Direct Labor hours                                                                500                                         500

                Setup hours                                                                              50                                         100

                Material moves                                                                                       25                                           50                                   

                Assembly hours                                                                                     800                                         800

                Maintenance hours                                                                10                                          40

 

a.  Calculate the total cost per-unit cost of each model using direct labor hours to assign manufacturing overhead to products.

b.  Calculate the total per-unit cost of each model using activity-based costing to assign manufacturing overhead to products.

c.  Comment on the accuracy of the two methods for determining costs.

 

d.  Discuss some of the strategic implications of your answers to the previous requirements.

Why is sti considered a scientifically controversial strategy?

Why is STI considered a scientifically controversial strategy? Suggest three biological reasons why STI could be advantageous. Predict what will happen to the virus over time if patients are then allowed to resume their HAART therapy after STI. Propose situations in which the STI approach may not be recommended or effective in some HIV-positive people. How would a physician be able to tell if STI is working?

 

Bam 501 : human relations quiz

1) Bill works in the payroll department at Cooper Metals. He is responsible for

 ensuring employee paychecks are accurate. Most of Cooper’s employees work

 irregular hours including occasional overtime, which makes his job even more

 challenging. When an employee believes their check is wrong, Bill is the first

 to hear about it. The resulting stress wears on him. What is the cause of

 Bill’s stress?

 

A) Authority level

B) Autonomy level

C) Work pace

D) Error visibility

 

2) Bennett is a Customer Services Manager. The right Bennett has in the work-

 place to give orders and expect those orders to be obeyed is known as

A) command

B) behavior

C) authority

D) teamwork

 

3) Which term refers to the number of employees voluntarily quitting their jobs

 in a given period of time?

A) Tardiness

B) Downsizing

C) Turnover

D) Absenteeism

 

4) The work pace involved in an employee’s job is best described as which of

 the following?

A) The length of time needed to complete one task.

B) The time required to perform a job task and the time between tasks.

C) The maximum speed the fastest worker can perform a task flawlessly.

D) The diversity or differences in the speed of work.

 

5) The work pace variety involved in an employee’s job is best described as

 which of the following?

A) The time required to perform a job task and the time between tasks.

B) The diversity or differences in the speed of work.

C) The maximum speed the fastest worker can perform a task flawlessly.

D) The length of time needed to complete one task.

 

6) The task duration involved in an employee’s job is best described as which of

 the following?

A) The diversity or differences in the speed of work.

B) The maximum speed the fastest worker can perform a task flawlessly.

C) The time required to perform a job task and the time between tasks.

D) The length of time needed to complete one task.

 

7) What is meant when we talk about accuracy in work?

A) How accountable someone is for obtaining results from their work tasks.

B) The fixing of close, undivided attention on a work task.

C) The precision or exactness needed to complete a work task.

D) How difficult the work task is to perform.

 

8) The amount of responsibility an employee has in their job is evident through

 ________.

A) the precision or exactness needed by the employee when completing their job

 tasks

B) the fixing of close, undivided attention on the employee as they perform their

 job

C) the difficulty of the tasks the employee performs in their job

D) the accountability the employee has for obtaining results in their job tasks

 

9) An individual who has power and the ability to make decisions about the utili-

 zation of the organization’s resources has which of the following?

A) Responsibility

B) Authority

C) Autonomy

D) Accountability

 

10) Employees who spend more time spreading gossip about others than perform-

 ing their jobs are known as ________.

A) Lazy workers

B) Squealers

C) Critics

D) Lone wolfs

 

11) When studying perceptions, the term mental set refers to which of the follow-

 ing statements?

A) An individual’s aggregate perceptions of work.

B) The individual’s perception of what they want regardless of reality.

C) What an individual thinks is happening.

D) The factual influences in an individual’s life.

 

12) Perceptual filters are those elements that describe which of the following?

A) An opinion formed with no basis or fact.

B) How others view our words and actions.

C) Our attitudes about people and things.

D) Impulses we do not consciously eliminate.

 

13) ________ is the act of attributing our own traits, faults, or motives onto others?

A) Two-valued reasoning

B) Inference

C) Projection

D) Halo effect

 

14) Chris made a snap judgment about why Charlie was late for work today. On

 what basis did Chris make his decision?

A) He made his decision using a belief or conclusion he held with confidence

 but was not substantiated with any proof.

B) He made his decision through an instant evaluation determined without the

 benefit of any fact or experience.

C) He made his decision based on what everyone in the workplace agreed was

 true.

D) He made his decision using information he knew or assumed to be true.

 

15) John made the assumption that because Bill is good at inventory ordering, he

 will automatically be good at data entry. On what basis is John making this

 decision?

A) He is using projection.

B) He is using the halo effect.

C) He is a victim of the fallacy of composition.

D) He is using the rusty halo effect.

 

16) Which of the following statements best describes the fallacy of composition?

A) The ignoring or distorting of reality to hold onto assumptions.

B) The assumption that when one event precedes another, the first caused the

 second.

C) The assumption that what is true of a part is true also of the whole.

D) The assumption that what is true for the whole is true for each of the parts.

 

17) Which of the following statements best describes the fallacy of division?

A) The assumption that what is true for the whole is true for each of the parts.

B) The ignoring or distorting of reality to hold onto assumptions.

C) The assumption that what is true of a part is true also of the whole.

D) The assumption that when one event precedes another, the first caused the

 second.

 

18) Which of the following statements best describes the fallacy of wishing it

 were so?

A) The assumption that what is true for the whole is true for each of the parts.

B) The assumption that when one event precedes another, the first caused the

 second.

C) The ignoring or distorting of reality to hold onto assumptions.

D) The assumption that what is true of a part is true also of the whole.

 

19) Jamison worked hard for his degree. He even had a mock diploma hanging

 over his desk as motivation. Graduation day was the proudest day of his life.

 Jamison was now pushing the employees he manages to enroll in college and

 get a degree. “If a degree meant so much to me,” he reasoned, “it will mean

 much to them, and it will motivate them.” What type of reasoning is Jamison

 using?

A) Multivalued Reasoning

B) Post Hoc, Ergo Propter Hoc

C) Fallacy of Division

D) Fallacy of Wishing it Were So

 

20) Martha is a supervisor at Cooper Corporation. Communication that flows from

 her office to the employees that work for her is referred to as ________.

A) Lateral communication

B) Downward communication

C) Upward communication

D) Sideway communication

 

21) As Deb works this morning compiling sales and expense results for her work

 unit, she prepares the documents in a format required by her supervisor. This

 type of feedback is referred to as ________.

A) Lateral communication

B) Upward communication

C) Open-door policy

D) Downward communication

 

22) A sender choosing the words and symbols to include in a message is begin

 ning the process of ________.

A) Channeling

B) Encoding

C) Feedback

D) Decoding

 

23) A receiver translating a sender’s message is beginning the process of

 ________.

A) Channeling

B) Encoding

C) Decoding

D) Feedback

 

24) Deliberately manipulating a sender’s message content to make it appear more

 favorable to the receiver is called ________.

A) Language

B) Selective perception

C) Emotions

D) Filtering

 

25) Which message channel is best for delivering the maximum amount of the

 sender’s message content?

A) Third-party

B) Face-to-face

C) Face-to-group

 D) Phone

 

26) When using face-to-face communication channel, how much of your total

 message is contributed through gestures and other nonverbal signals?

A) 55%

B) 38%

C) 7%

D) 45%

 

 

27) Doublespeak is best defined by which statement?

A) ”Friday will be your last workday. We are debloating the workforce.”

B) ”We have too many employees. In other words, some people have to be

 fired.”

C) ”It is essential that you check everything twice.”

D) Don’t make me say it again.”

 

28) Which part of the head provides the most important and key nonverbal symbols?

A) The mouth

B) The forehead

C) The eyes

D) The nose

 

 

29) Snap judgments are best defined as ________.

A) conclusions drawn instantly

B) forming opinions

C) all-inclusive words

D) deliberate deception of others

 

 

30) The communication barrier that relates to an individual’s status in the organization is known as ________.

A) rank

B) credibility gap

C) gatekeeping

D) verbal cocoon

 

31) What do we call a person or device that controls or limits access to another

 person?

A) Gatekeeper

B) Doorkeeper

C) Credibility gap keeper

D) Verbal cocoon keeper

 

 

32) Amanda has been told to use open questions when she interviews job candidates. What should she be considering as she prepares her questions?

A) Questions requiring more than just a yes or no answer.

B) Questions with more than two correct answers.

C) Questions with no answer.

D) Questions that can be answered yes or no.

 

 

33) What is required for listening to occur?

A) Hearing information

B) Wanting and needing the information

C) Proximity and proclivity

D) Hearing and attending to the information

 

 

34) Options involved in a conflict involve which of the following?

A) The alternatives that will resolve a conflict.

B) The different approaches to starting a conflict.

C) The alternative approaches to ending a conflict.

D) The different approaches to handling a conflict.

 

 

35) In a conflict, an alternative would be ________.

A) the consequences of not resolving a conflict

B) the consequences of not starting a conflict

C) the third party affected by the conflict

D) the third party involved in the conflict

 

 

36) ”I would like to call this first meeting of union representatives and management to discuss quality issues to order,” said Senior VP Raul Chavez. ”As you all

should now, we must either significantly increase quality or we will lose virtually

all of our current contracts.” Denise Wallace interjected, “The union has drawn

up a list of actions for both union members and management to take and I previously sent a copy

to Andy Dobbins.” Dobbins, Senior Operations Manager, held up the list and said, “I’ve looked

over the list and most of these are workable. I’ve also added a few ideas from management.”

Raul looked around the table and said, “May I suggest we look over everything we have to date,

change or make additions to that and come to a consensus on actions managers and union

members can take?” The others nodded in agreement. What

conflict characteristics are present here?

1. feud mentality

2. everyone syndrome

3. going for broke

4. me syndrome

5. you syndrome

6. problem-solving mentality

A) 2 and 6

B) 1, 3, 4, and 5

C) 2, 4, 5, and 6

D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

 

37) Jamal looked at Sue and said, “We have to renegotiate these rates. The price

 of energy has dropped dramatically and our recent school funding referendum

 failed. My high school cannot afford to heat the buildings properly at this

 rate. Energy costs are second only to teacher salaries for us. If we can’t

 get a better rate, the board has no choice but to close this school and send

 the students across the town. That will mean overcrowding for the students

 but it will also mean much less money for you because that building has the

 experimental solar and methane gas co-generation plant. If the rate can be

 cut in half, we would be willing to extend our agreement to buy from you beyond the 18 months

we have left to 4 years.”What is the conflict demand in

 this situation?

A) To build a co-generation plant.

B) To close the building and move the students across town.

C) To extend the current agreement to four years.

D) To reduce the energy rate to half the current rate.

 

 

38) Which of the following situations describes proper etiquette for using the office copier?

A) Your job involves making 20 copies of 8 pages on letterhead paper with

 120% magnification, increased darkness, 2-sided copies from 1-sided originals, collated, and stapled. When your job is done, you leave the machine

 with this setup just in case the next person who makes copies needs the

 same thing.

B) Your job involves making 20 copies of 8 pages on letterhead paper with

 120% magnification, increased darkness, 2-sided copies of 1-sided originals,

 collated, and stapled. Frank is asking you to stop your job so that he can

 make 15 copies of 1 page.

C) You need to make 6 copies of 1 page and believe you should go before Frank

 who needs to make 14 copies of 31 pages.

D) You are in the middle of making 80 copies of 3 pages. Frank needs to make

 one copy of 200 pages and has asked to interrupt your job.

 

 

39) Which of the following situations describes proper etiquette when you are the

 one CALLING a meeting?

A) You invite the whole department, 27 people, to a problem-solving meeting.

B) You ask for a volunteer to arrange the date, time, and location of the meeting.

C) You arrive late so you are not kept waiting.

D) You prepare an agenda so the group knows what will be discussed.

 

 

40) Today’s etiquette indicates that cell phones should be used in which of the

 following places?

A) In the classroom

B) In the theater

C) In the restaurant

D) None of the above

 

 

41) Meetings that last longer than ________ should include a scheduled break.

A) 75

B) 90

C) 60

D) 45

 

 

42) Moral principles of right conduct are ________.

A) morality

B) responsibility

C) ethics

D) etiquette

 

 

43) The goodness or badness of human action or behavior is ________.

A) ethics

B) morality

C) responsibility

D) etiquette

 

 

44) A manager who focuses on social goals as the overall goal of management

 would be considered to follow the ________ philosophy of social responsibility

A) Profit-action

B) Trustee-of-profit

C) Profit-quest

D) Enlightened self-interest

 

 

45) Laying off employees and reorganizing a firm is typically referred to as

 ________.

A) downsizing

B) acquisition

C) implementation

D) quality management

 

 

46) What are the technical skills an employee needs to complete the job duties

 as outlined in their job description?

A) The skills needed to supervise other individuals.

B) The skills needed to manage yourself.

C) The skills needed to perform job tasks.

D) The skills to communicate and work with others.

 

 

47) What are the interpersonal skills an employee needs to complete the job duties as outlined in their job description?

A) The skills to communicate and work with others.

B) The skills needed to supervise other individuals.

C) The skills needed to perform job tasks.

D) The skills needed to manage yourself.

 

 

48) The process of job design includes ________.

A) Creating a list of tasks needed to be performed in order to manage a job.

B) Listing the assortment of skills a person needs to perform their job.

C) Planning how and when to hire employees.

D) Defining and dividing tasks into jobs and describing the jobs and individuals

 best capable of performing them.

 

 

49) What type of organization design is focused on how knowledge is acquired

 and disseminated throughout a firm?

A) Horizontal organization

B) Learning organization

C) Virtual organization

D) Liberation management organization

 

 

50) Mark Majors is Vice-President of Marketing at a large consumer products

 company. Augusta Sinclair is a new Advertising Manager. Salvador Pina is

 the chief salesperson. A reorganization is in progress. In order to follow the

 chain of command principle, which one of these structures is NOT permissible?

A) Mark, Augusta, and Salvador all managed by separate individuals

B) Mark managing Augusta and Salvador

C) Mark managing Augusta and Salvador in a separate department

 

D) Augusta managing Mark and Salvador

 

 

Business ethics final paper | OMM 640 Business Ethics & Social Responsibility | Ashford University

To prepare for this assignment, review Chapter 9 in the course text, as well as the article on compliance program auditing by Usnick and Usnick (2013). In addition, read Chapter 10 in the course text. Review Table 10.3: Global Risks 2014, and select one of the risk areas: economic, environmental, geopolitical, societal, or technological.

For this assignment, imagine that you have been tasked with creating a proposal for the new CEO of your organization. You have been asked to create a proposal that establishes an ethics program, as well as develop a training plan, and develop a plan to conduct compliance auditing. Your proposal must include the following:

  • Describe an emerging global risk that is either economic, environmental, geopolitical, societal, or technological.
  • Identify all countries that might be associated with the risk.
  • Describe the effects of the risk on each country.
  • Evaluate the role of ethical decision-making in business organizations as the role pertains to your global risk.
  • Analyze the impact of business ethics on stakeholder relationships.
  • Analyze why it is necessary to create an ethics program, conduct training, and engage in compliance auditing.
  • Design a training plan for ethical considerations and social responsibility as it relates to the key risk area and the countries you have selected. The training plan must include the following:
    • The goals of the training program
    • The objectives of the training program
    • The learning methods/activities of the training program
    • How the training program will be evaluated
  • Describe how the training will be conducted
  • Describe how compliance auditing will be conducted.
  • Summarize the key findings

The assignment:

  • Must be eight to ten double-spaced pages in length (not including the title page and references page) and and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate title page with the following
    • Title of paper
    • Student’s name
    • Course name and number
    • Instructor’s name
    • Date submitted
  • Must use at least three scholarly and/or credible sources in addition to the course text and the Usnick and Usnick (2013) article.
    • The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible SourcesPreview the document table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.
  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Week 2 6630 responses | Nursing homework help

Julian Fils Julian Fils: (Week Two)Neurotransmitters and Receptor TheoryCOLLAPSE

Discussion: Neurotransmitters and Receptor Theory

Explain the agonist-to-antagonist spectrum of action of psychopharmacologic agents, including how partial and inverse agonist functionality may impact psychopharmacologic treatments’ efficacy.

In simple terms, an agonist creates a specific action, and the antagonist opposes a particular activity. Neurotransmitters that occur naturally stimulate receptors and are thus agonists. Some medications also stimulate receptors and are therefore agonists as well. The mechanism of partial agonists or stabilizers the drugs stimulate the receptors lesser than natural neurotransmitter. It is a common misconception that antagonists are the opposite of agonists because they block agonists’ actions. However, although antagonists prevent agonists’ efforts, they have no activity of their own in the agonist’s absence (Stern et al., 2016).

For this reason, antagonists are sometimes called “silent.” Inverse agonists, on the other hand, do have opposite actions compared to agonists. That is, they not only block agonists but can also reduce activity below the baseline level when no agonist is present. Thus, the agonist spectrum reaches from full agonists to partial agonists through “silent” antagonists and finally inverse agonists (Stahl, 2013).

Compare and contrast the actions of g couple proteins and ion gated channels

Neurotransmitters trigger G-protein-linked and ion-channel-linked cascades.  There are four elements linked to the G-protein-linked system. The first element is the neurotransmitter, also referred to as the first messenger. The second is the G-protein coupled receptors which have seven transmembrane regions. The third element a G protein, which is a connecting protein. The fourth element is an enzyme that can synthesize a second messenger when activated (Stahl, 2013).  The first steps involve the neurotransmitter binding to the receptor. It also changes the form of the receptor, which allows it to fit with the G protein. Then, the G protein binding is conformed to the receptor of the neurotransmitter. The two receptors (neurotransmitter and the G protein) work with each other, which then bind to enzyme E and synthesizes the second messenger (Stahl, 2013).

Ion channel receptors are a vital component of nervous system signaling, allowing rapid and direct conversion of a chemical neurotransmitter message to an electrical current. Efficient neurotransmission requires the precise interplay of various neurotransmitter receptors at pre-and post-synaptic compartments. Ligand-gated ion channels play a central role in intercellular communication in the nervous system. Ion channels are the cellular machinery for ion flux across the membrane and, therefore, the basis of the electrical excitation of neurons. Ligand-gated ion channels are oligomeric protein assemblies that convert a chemical signal into an ion flux through the post-synaptic membrane and are involved in essential brain functions such as attention, learning, and memory (Li et al., 2015).

Explain how the role of epigenetics may contribute to pharmacologic action

Epigenetics describes genetic information that is ‘beyond’ or ‘above’ that information coded solely by our genetic code (Stefanska & MacEwan, 2015). Prior research has shown that the initial epigenetic pattern was set during life and gave each neuron its life-long personality. However, recent studies have shown that these neurons are changing. Depending on what happened to them, such as stress, child abuse, dietary deficiencies, psychotherapy, drug abuse, or psychotherapeutic medications, the previously silent genes are now activated once active genes can become silenced. Thus, causing favorable and unfavorable developments. Favorable epigenetics may trigger learning or experience therapeutic effects on medications, and inimical epigenetic mechanisms may trigger drug abuse, addiction, anxiety disorder, or chronic pain (Stahl, 2013). 

Explain how this information may impact the way you prescribe medications to patients. Include a specific example of a situation or case with a patient in which the psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner must be aware of the medication’s action.

As prescribers, psychiatric nurse practitioners must understand the biological and physical aspects of prescribing medication to the mental health population. These medications directly affect the receptors and neurons; therefore, it is imperative to understand the mechanism of action. Recently at work, a geriatric psychiatric patient with a urinary tract infection was having difficulty sleeping. The nurse asked about trazodone as a PRN for sleep. The Psychiatrist explained that trazodone inhibition of the reuptake of serotonin makes it an antidepressant. It is essential to know it also blocks alpha- receptors that can give the side effect of orthostatic hypotension, especially in older patients. What is also crucial is to note that the anticholinergic effects of trazodone cause delirium and confusion.

In this example, a study was conducted by Lockwood & Youssef  (2017), where the study of epigenetic effects on the Brain-Derived Neurotrophic Factor (BDNF)  in patients with bipolar disorder types I and II and major depressive disorder. In this study, methylation was investigated when patients were in various mood states, including manic, hypomanic, mixed, euthymic, and depressed. The effects of valproic acid and lithium and the impact on BDNF were studied. The results have shown that in a mixed or manic state, BDNF methylation levels approximated that of the control subjects. In addition to that, the patients that were in euthymic or depressed states had significantly higher BDNF methylation levels (Lockwood & Youssef, 2017).

References

Li, S., Wong, A. H. C., & Liu, F. (2015). Ligand-gated ion channel interacting proteins and their role in neuroprotection. Frontiers in Cellular Neuroscience, 8. https://doi.org/10.3389/fncel.2014.00125

Lockwood, L., & Youssef, N. (2017). Systematic review of epigenetic effects of pharmacological agents for bipolar disorders. Brain Sciences, 7(12), 154. https://doi.org/10.3390/brainsci7110154

Stahl, S. (2013). Stahl’s essential psychopharmacology print and online bundle: Neuroscientific basis and practical applications. Cambridge University Press.

Stefanska, B., & MacEwan, D. J. (2015). Epigenetics and pharmacology. British Journal of Pharmacology, 172(11), 2701–2704. https://doi.org/10.1111/bph.13136

Stern, T. A., M Fava, Wilens, T. E., & Rosenbaum, J. F. (2016). Massachusetts general hospital psychopharmacology and neurotherapeutics. Elsevier.

Deepinder Bhandohal Week 2 DiscussionCOLLAPSE

Foundational Neuroscience

1.  Explain the agonist-to-antagonist spectrum of action of psychopharmacologic agents, including how partial and inverse agonist functionality may impact the efficacy of psychopharmacologic treatments.

Agonists are agents that activate receptors upon their binding, similar to the effect of neurotransmitters, hormones, and other endogenous regulators. Antagonists on the other hand do not affect the action of the receptor but act by blocking the receptor’s effectiveness to prevent binding of other drugs or endogenous molecules for activation. Therefore, an antagonist is a drug that has a receptor binding affinity but do not initiate any intrinsic activity (Seyedabadi, Ghahremani, & Albert, 2019).

Partial agonists have moderate activity compared to full agonists, often producing half the effect. A partial agonist can thus be an agonist-antagonist as it blocks the binding of other molecules while producing limited activity. An inverse agonist binds to the agonist binding site on the receptor but elicits an opposite pharmacological effect. Therefore, partial and inverse agonists influence the efficacy and outcomes of the treatments.

2.  Compare and contrast the actions of G-coupled proteins and ion gated channels.

G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) constitute a large family of receptors on the cellular plasma membranes that utilize a G protein to transmit signals inside the cell. Disorders in G-protein coupled receptors may result in diseases as they serve multiple functions within the body. Different responses are elicited by the G-protein coupled receptors following the interaction of G-protein subunits with other proteins within the cell. The subunits (α subunit, and another made up of the β and γ subunits) are produced from the division of G-protein following the binding with guanosine triphosphate. The interaction of these subunits with other proteins triggers diverse signaling pathways within the cell (Seyedabadi, Ghahremani, & Albert, 2019).

Ion channels are proteins that enable the flow of specific ions into and out of the cell. There are three types of gated ion channels; mechanically-gated ion channels, voltage-gated ion channels, and ligand-gated ion channels. Ligand-gated ion channels are ionotropic receptors that close or open in response to ligand binding. Voltage-gated ion channels open or close in response to changes in the membrane potentials. Membrane proteins activated by a GPCR can interact with ligand-gated ion channels to prompt their opening or closing (Alexander et al., 2019).

3.  Explain how the role of epigenetics may contribute to pharmacologic action.

Epigenetics is gene regulation where the gene expression patterns are changed following reversible modification of DNA, RNA, or proteins. Epigenetic alterations enable the understanding and identification of diseases like neurodegenerative disorders or cancers. DNA methylation is an example of disease-causing alterations. Responses to drugs vary based on the cellular changes caused by epigenetic alterations or genetic heterogeneity (Rosenthal & Burchum, 2018).

4.  Explain how this information may impact the way you prescribe medications to patients. Include a specific example of a situation or case with a patient in which the psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner must be aware of the medication’s action.

Prescribing medications needs to take account of the patient’s characteristics especially the family history and the genetic implications on diagnosis and treatment. McClarty, Fisher, and Dong (2018) point out the effect of age on dementia treatment, especially when using antipsychotics for the psychological, behavioral, and psychosis symptoms. The treatment has various side effects and is often ineffective due to the effects of aging on drug metabolism and clearance. Age-induced epigenetic alterations also result in pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic changes that influence the antipsychotic action of the medication (Nguyen et al., 2020). Epigenetic changes also cause an increase in side effects and altered efficacy of antipsychotics due to histone modifications. Awareness of these changes would inform the prescription decision, especially for the antipsychotics to ensure minimal side effects and maximum efficacy of the selected medication (Camprodon & Roffman, 2016).

References

Alexander, S., Mathie, A., Peters, J. A., Veale, E. L., Striessnig, J., Kelly, E., Armstrong, J. F., Faccenda, E., Harding, S. D., Pawson, A. J., Sharman, J. L., Southan, C., Davies, J. A., & CGTP Collaborators (2019). The Concise Guide to Pharmacology 2019/20: Ion channels. British journal of pharmacology176 Suppl 1(Suppl 1), S142–S228. https://doi.org/10.1111/bph.14749

Camprodon, J. A., & Roffman, J. L. (2016). Psychiatric neuroscience: Incorporating pathophysiology into clinical case formulation. In T. A. Stern, M. Favo, T. E. Wilens, & J. F. Rosenbaum. (Eds.), Massachusetts General Hospital psychopharmacology and neurotherapeutics (pp. 1–19). Elsevier. 

Guidelines on prescribing practice in mental health: A systematic review. Psychiatry Research284. https://doi-org.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/10.1016/j.psychres.2019.112671

McClarty, B. M., Fisher, D. W., & Dong, H. (2018). Epigenetic Alterations Impact on Antipsychotic Treatment in Elderly Patients. Current treatment options in psychiatry5(1), 17–29.

Nguyen, T., Seiler, N., Brown, E., & O’Donoghue, B. (2020). The effect of Clinical Practice

Rosenthal, L. D., & Burchum, J. R. (2018). Lehne’s pharmacotherapeutics for advanced practice providers. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier.

Seyedabadi, M., Ghahremani, M. H., & Albert, P. R. (2019). Biased signaling of G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs): Molecular determinants of GPCR/transducer selectivity and therapeutic potential. Pharmacology & therapeutics200, 148–178. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.pharmthera.2019.05.006

2 SOURCES ON EACH DISCUSSION

Book reflective response | Article writing homework help

Book Reflective Response: You must read Patrick Lencioni’s Five Dysfunctions of a Team and :

1. Pick two of the dysfunctions that are described in the book, and reflect on the importance of a leader addressing these specific dysfunctions. You must clearly state and identify which dysfunctions you will write about, and what you are d

2. Write about how you as a leader would address this dysfunction (using course material, and material in the textbook).  What can leaders do to ensure this dysfunction is regularly avoided and what can leaders do if they encounter this within the team? Also, what other creative solutions, and possibly leadership traits can you suggest to address the specific dysfunctions. You are welcome to ask me (the professor} for some suggestions as to materials you might consider involving in this assignment).  YOU MUST both think critically as to what you the leader would do, and what you suggest are some leadership behaviors that can address these problems. Make sure you cite the sources you use. 

Week 4 discussion statistics for behavioral science | stastics for behavioral science

The majority of the data is normally distributed if there are enough subjects. For instance, if you collected test scores of only a few honor students, the data will most likely not be normally distributed because you would have a sample that did not represent the entire population. But the identical test scores (for honor students) collected from all schools in a state will result in a normal distribution.

Identify an example of a population that you would expect to be normally distributed. Explain why you believe it would be normally distributed. Then, describe a subset of the population you identified and explain why it would not be normally distributed and what the distribution would look like.

Justify your answers with appropriate reasoning and research from your textbook and course readings. Start reviewing and responding to at least two of your classmates as early in the week as possible. You can ask technical questions or respond generally to the overall experience. Be honest, clear, and concise. Always use constructive language, even in criticism, to work toward the goal of positive progress. Using questions and seeking clarifications are good ways to make your reviews substantive!

Submission Details:

  • Post your response to the Discussion Areaby the due date assigned. Respond to at least two posts by the end of the week.

Case questions | Management homework help

Please answer the 3 questions at the end of the case. Your responses should be two pages double spaced in Times New Roman, size 12 font.

Citation for case: Johnson, G., Whittington, R., Scholes, K., Angwin, D., & Regnér, P. (2017). Exploring strategy: text and cases (11th ed.). Pearson Education Limited.

Citation for chapter 14 (please use information from chapter content in case response): 

Johnson, G., Whittington, R., Scholes, K., Angwin, D., & Regnér, P. (2017). Exploring strategy: text and cases (11th ed.). Pearson Education Limited.

Extra source: https://www.npr.org/2018/02/06/572558864/patagonia-yvon-chouinard

Multicultural psych assignment 8 | Psychology homework help

PS380 Multicultural Psychology

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) doublespaced pages; refer to the “Format Requirementsʺ page for specific format requirements.

 

1.     Briefly describe the relative perspective on psychopathology and the universalist perspective on psychopathology. Which perspective most closely matches your own? Provide two (2) supporting facts to justify your choice.

 

2.     Briefly describe each of the following types of bias and provide one (1) original example of each.

a.      Self-centered bias

b.     Unassuming bias

c.      Group-serving bias

 

 

3.     Provide two (2) original examples of instances in which conformity would be an effective behavioral response. Explain why, providing two (2) supporting facts.